Category: CSTE


Every now and then I hear people saying that we don’t have enough time for testing or our estimates have gone wrong due to some resource issues, however we can resolve these things by doing risk analysis, we need to identify the areas where testing should be focused.
Since it’s rarely possible to test every possible aspect of an application, every possible combination of events, every dependency, or everything that could go wrong, risk analysis is appropriate to most software development projects.

This requires judgement skills, common sense, and experience. (If warranted, formal methods are also available.) Considerations can include:
– Which functionality is most important to the project’s intended purpose?
– Which functionality is most visible to the user?
– Which functionality has the largest safety impact?
– Which functionality has the largest financial impact on users?
– Which aspects of the application are most important to the customer?
– Which aspects of the application can be tested early in the development cycle?
– Which parts of the code are most complex, and thus most subject to errors?
– Which parts of the application were developed in rush or panic mode?
– Which aspects of similar/related previous projects caused problems?
– Which aspects of similar/related previous projects had large maintenance expenses?
– Which parts of the requirements and design are unclear or poorly thought out?
– What do the developers think are the highest-risk aspects of the application?
– What kinds of problems would cause the worst publicity?
– What kinds of problems would cause the most customer service complaints?
– What kinds of tests could easily cover multiple functionalities?
– Which tests will have the best high-risk-coverage to time-required ratio?

I hope this helps everyone.

Regards,

Himanshu

ISEB/ISTQB Sample paper2

1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss

5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person

7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications

8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing

10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing

12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times


14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?

a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON

15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review

16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct

22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct

23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design

24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says

a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if

a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2

29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : –
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report

30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.

a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.

a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true

33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.

35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
a) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true

36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification

Answers :

1 c
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 c
15 c
16 d
17 a
18 d
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 a
23 a
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 b
29 a
30 a
31 a
32 c
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 b
37 b
38 b
39 b
40 a

Here is one of the papers that has been sent to me by Sam take a look

1 Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A Determining the test approach.
B Preparing test specifications.
C Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D Measuring and analyzing results.

2 Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.

3 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A £4000; £5000; £5500.
B £32001; £34000; £36500.
C £28000; £28001; £32001.
D £4000; £4200; £5600.

4 Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A Parameter type mismatches.
B Errors in requirements.
C Undeclared variables.
D Uncalled functions.

5 Which of the following test activities can be automated? i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

A i, iii, iv.
B i, ii, iii.
C ii, iv, v.
D ii, iii, v.

6 Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B Complete the testing of a key project.
C Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D Discover what the requirements for the tool are.

7 What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B To communicate how testing will be performed.
C To produce a test schedule.
D To produce a work breakdown structure.

8In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A After the software or system has been produced.
B During development.
C As early as possible.
D During requirements analysis.

9 What is the objective of debugging? i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.

A i, iii.
B ii, iii, iv.
C ii, iv.
D i, ii.

10 Given the following decision table

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris

A A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
C A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.

11 Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.

A i,ii, and iii.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iv.
D i,iii and iv.

12 The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.

According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

A iii, i, iv, ii.
B iii, iv, i, ii.
C iii, ii, i, iv.
D ii, iii, i, iv.

13 What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

14Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.

15 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A £28000.
B £33501.
C £32001.
D £1500.

16 Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A Test plan.
B Test procedure specification.
C Test case specification.
D Test design specification.

17 Given the following state transition

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

A A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A, B, E, B, C, D.
D A, B, C, F, F, D.

18 Given the following decision table

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class

A A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
C A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.

19 During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.

20 What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the
project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks
are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues,
organizational factors and technical issues.

21 Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

A 17, 18, 19.
B 29, 30, 31.
C 18, 29, 30.
D 17, 29, 31.

21 Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.

READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT “C must be smaller than at least one number”
ELSE
PRINT “Proceed to next stage”
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT “B can be smaller than C”
ENDIF

A 3, 3.
B 2, 3.
C 2, 4.
D 3, 2.

23 Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B Testing is isolated from development.
C Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

24 Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator? A Dynamic Analysis tool.
B Test Execution tool.
C Static Analysis tool.
D Security tool.

25 Given the following State Table:

Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?

A E from State S2.
B E from State S3.
C B from State S1.
D F from State S3.

26 Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A All document reviews involve the development team.
B Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

27 Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
A Test analysis and design.
B Test planning and control.
C Test closure.
D Test implementation and execution.

28 The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?

A ii and iii.
B ii and iv.
C i and iv.
D i and iii.

29 What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D Because software is inherently risky.

30 Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the last regression test run.

31 Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software
than the person who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

32 For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.

A i, iv, vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.

33 Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected defects.
B Total number of defects in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix all defects.

34 Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options
Regression testing should be performed:

i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changed

A ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.

35 In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.

36 Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.

A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.

37 Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

A i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

38 Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.

39 Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.

A i, iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.

40 Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for regression testing.

Answers
Q No Ans
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. A

PRESS RELEASE
ORLANDO, Florida, November 6, 2008 /PRNewswire via COMTEX/ — The QAI Global Institute ( http://www.qaiworldwide.com), which administers Software Certifications’ examinations, after having certified more than 35,000 professionals worldwide in 43 countries on the international standard for software quality and testing practitioner certifications, Certified Software Quality Analyst (CSQA) and Certified Software Tester (CSTE), announced the launch of two of their new certifications: Certified Associate in Software Quality (CASQ) and the Certified Associate in Software Testing (CAST).
Announcing the launch,Tom Ticknor, Chief Operating Officer, QAI said, “The CAST and the CASQ certifications have been designed to specifically evaluate individuals who have acquired knowledge in the areas of testing or quality assurance but who have either no experience or limited experience in applying that knowledge. This augments QAI’s immensely successful Practitioner level certification – CSTE (Certified Software Tester) and CSQA (Certified Software Quality Analyst),” Mr. Ticknor added, “Our corporate clients have been asking for a tool to assess the knowledge of their entry level testers and QA analysts. The CASQ and CAST examinations provide detailed feedback regarding the candidates strengths and weaknesses which can help organizations provide additional training if necessary or more appropriately utilize the talents of their staff.”
The CASQ and CAST examinations are made up of objective questions covering the 10 knowledge domains of QAI’s Software Testing and Quality Assurance common bodies of knowledge (CBOKs). The CASQ and CAST examinations will be available worldwide starting January 2009.
Since it’s inception in 1988, the Software Certifications ( http://www.softwarecertifications.org) division of QAI Global Institute has certified professionals in countries like Australia, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, China, Egypt, Hong Kong, India, Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, South Africa, United Kingdom, Thailand, Philippines, United Arab Emirates and the United States amidst others. Their certifications, CSQA and CSTE, are the recognized international standard for quality and testing professionals.
About Software Certifications
Software Certifications, a division of QAI, had its beginning in 1980 as the Quality Assurance Institute and was established as a professional association formed to represent the quality assurance profession. The first certification began development in 1985 and the first formal examination process was launched in 1990. Today, Software Certifications, administered by QAI, is global. Since its inception, Software Certifications has certified over 35,000 IT professionals in 43 countries on 6 continents in the world.
    Contact:

    Tom Ticknor
    +1-407-363-1111
    tticknor@qaiworldwide.org
SOURCE The QAI Global Institute

The cost of faults escalates as we progress from one stage of the development life cycle to the next stage. A requirement fault found during a review of the requirement specification will cost very little to correct since the only thing that needs changing is the requirement specification document.

If a requirement fault is not found until system testing then the cost of fixing it is much higher as the requirement specification will need to be changed together with the functional and design specifications and the source code. After these changes some component and integration testing will need to be repeated and finally some of the system testing. If the requirement fault is not found until the system has been put into real use then the cost is even higher since after being fixed and re-tested the new version of the system will have to be shipped to all the end users affected by it.

Furthermore, faults that are found in the field (i.e. by end-users during real use of the system) will cost the end-users time and effort. It may be that the fault makes the users’ work more difficult or perhaps impossible to do. The fault could cause a failure that corrupts the users’ data and this in turn takes time and effort to repair.

The longer a specification fault remains undetected the more likely it is that it will cause other faults because it may encourage false assumptions. In this way faults can be multiplied so the cost of one particular fault can be considerably more than the cost of fixing it.
The cost of testing is generally lower than the cost associated with major faults (such as poor quality product and/or fixing faults) although few organizations have figures to confirm this.

Hi Here comes some details wrt what types of testing one can perform.
I hope you’ll find the list useful.

  • Black box testing – not based on any knowledge of internal design or code. Tests are based on requirements and functionality.
  • White box testing – based on knowledge of the internal logic of an application’s code. Tests are based on coverage of code statements, branches, paths, conditions.
  • unit testing – the most ‘micro’ scale of testing; to test particular functions or code modules. Typically done by the programmer and not by testers, as it requires detailed knowledge of the internal program design and code. Not always easily done unless the application has a well-designed architecture with tight code; may require developing test driver modules or test harnesses.
  • incremental integration testing – continuous testing of an application as new functionality is added; requires that various aspects of an application’s functionality be independent enough to work separately before all parts of the program are completed, or that test drivers be developed as needed; done by programmers or by testers.
  • integration testing – testing of combined parts of an application to determine if they function together correctly. The ‘parts’ can be code modules, individual applications, client and server applications on a network, etc. This type of testing is especially relevant to client/server and distributed systems.
  • functional testing – black-box type testing geared to functional requirements of an application; this type of testing should be done by testers. This doesn’t mean that the programmers shouldn’t check that their code works before releasing it (which of course applies to any stage of testing.)
  • system testing – black-box type testing that is based on overall requirements specifications; covers all combined parts of a system.
  • end-to-end testing – similar to system testing; the ‘macro’ end of the test scale; involves testing of a complete application environment in a situation that mimics real-world use, such as interacting with a database, using network communications, or interacting with other hardware, applications, or systems if appropriate.
  • sanity testing or smoke testing – typically an initial testing effort to determine if a new software version is performing well enough to accept it for a major testing effort. For example, if the new software is crashing systems every 5 minutes, bogging down systems to a crawl, or corrupting databases, the software may not be in a ‘sane’ enough condition to warrant further testing in its current state.
  • regression testing – re-testing after fixes or modifications of the software or its environment. It can be difficult to determine how much re-testing is needed, especially near the end of the development cycle. Automated testing tools can be especially useful for this type of testing.
  • acceptance testing – final testing based on specifications of the end-user or customer, or based on use by end-users/customers over some limited period of time.
  • load testing – testing an application under heavy loads, such as testing of a web site under a range of loads to determine at what point the system’s response time degrades or fails.
  • stress testing – term often used interchangeably with ‘load’ and ‘performance’ testing. Also used to describe such tests as system functional testing while under unusually heavy loads, heavy repetition of certain actions or inputs, input of large numerical values, large complex queries to a database system, etc.
  • performance testing – term often used interchangeably with ‘stress’ and ‘load’ testing. Ideally ‘performance’ testing (and any other ‘type’ of testing) is defined in requirements documentation or QA or Test Plans.
  • usability testing – testing for ‘user-friendliness’. Clearly this is subjective, and will depend on the targeted end-user or customer. User interviews, surveys, video recording of user sessions, and other techniques can be used. Programmers and testers are usually not appropriate as usability testers.
  • install/uninstall testing – testing of full, partial, or upgrade install/uninstall processes.
  • recovery testing – testing how well a system recovers from crashes, hardware failures, or other catastrophic problems.
  • failover testing – typically used interchangeably with ‘recovery testing’
  • security testing – testing how well the system protects against unauthorized internal or external access, willful damage, etc; may require sophisticated testing techniques.
  • compatability testing – testing how well software performs in a particular hardware/software/operating system/network/etc. environment.
  • exploratory testing – often taken to mean a creative, informal software test that is not based on formal test plans or test cases; testers may be learning the software as they test it.
  • ad-hoc testing – similar to exploratory testing, but often taken to mean that the testers have significant understanding of the software before testing it.
  • context-driven testing – testing driven by an understanding of the environment, culture, and intended use of software. For example, the testing approach for life-critical medical equipment software would be completely different than that for a low-cost computer game.
  • user acceptance testing – determining if software is satisfactory to an end-user or customer.
  • comparison testing – comparing software weaknesses and strengths to competing products.
  • alpha testing – testing of an application when development is nearing completion; minor design changes may still be made as a result of such testing. Typically done by end-users or others, not by programmers or testers.
  • beta testing – testing when development and testing are essentially completed and final bugs and problems need to be found before final release. Typically done by end-users or others, not by programmers or testers.
  • mutation testing – a method for determining if a set of test data or test cases is useful, by deliberately introducing various code changes (‘bugs’) and retesting with the original test data/cases to determine if the ‘bugs’ are detected. Proper implementation requires large computational resources.
  • Here are some more questions that will help you while writing the exam.

    1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing
    artifacts)
    a) Test data
    b) Test data plan
    c) Test summary report
    d) Test procedure plan

    2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing
    artifacts)
    a) Schedules and deliverables
    b) Hardware and software
    c) Entry and exit criteria
    d) Types of test cases

    3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
    A. deviations from standards,
    B.requirement defects,
    C.design defects,
    D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
    E.All of the above.

    4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
    a) reduces the time spent by the testers
    b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
    c) mostly used in web testing
    d) all of the above

    5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
    A.identifying defects.
    B. fixing defects.
    C. 1 and 2
    D. None

    6. Defect arrival rate curve:
    A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
    B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
    C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
    D. Any of these, depending on the company.

    7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
    (Test Mgmt)
    a) The probability the negative event will occur
    b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
    c) Both a and b
    d) Neither a nor b

    8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
    A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
    statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE
    branch.
    B. The failure depends on the program’s inability to handle specific data values,
    rather than on the program’s flow of control.
    C. Both A and B
    D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.

    9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing
    Test)
    a. Test manager
    b. Test engineer
    c. both A & B
    d. Project Manager

    10. What if the project isn’t big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
    a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
    b) Use automation tool for testing
    c) a and b
    d) None of the above

    11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for
    world wide web sites (Test Execution)
    a) Interaction between html pages
    b) Performance on the client side
    c) Security aspects
    d) All of the above

    12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
    a) Work with the project’s stakeholders early on to understand how
    requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies
    can be worked out in advance, if possible.
    b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the
    project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
    versions of the application
    c) Both a and b
    d) None of the above

    13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
    a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
    b) Includes the area of frequent defects
    c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
    d) All of the above

    14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
    A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We don’t know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and
    so we don’t know how to interpret the result.
    C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
    D. All of the above.

    15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
    a. No, the problem is not with testers
    b. No, the software is not ready for production
    c. Both a & b
    d. none of the above

    16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project’s schedule
    with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
    A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing
    to do the rest of the project’s work more efficiently
    B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
    because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn’t
    alarm them.
    C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not
    report bugs.
    D. All of the above

    17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
    a. compliance testing
    b. disaster testing
    c. verifying compliance to rules
    d. functional testing
    e. ease of operations

    18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
    a. functional automation tools
    b. performance testing tools
    c. configuration management tools
    d. none of the above.

    19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
    A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
    B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
    managers to argue for very little testing.
    C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
    because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
    D. All of the above.

    20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s
    Role SDLC)
    a Assess development plan and status
    b Develop the test plan
    c Test software design
    d Test software requirement

    21. In the MASPAR case study:
    A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
    B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but
    missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
    C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost
    every input value to find its two special-case failures.

    D. All of the above.

    22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
    A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
    B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
    C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
    D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

    23. What if the project isn’t big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
    a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
    b) Use automation tool for testing
    c) a and b
    d) None of the above

    24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
    a. compliance testing
    b. disaster testing
    c. verifying compliance to rules
    d. functional testing
    e. ease of operations

    25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
    A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
    B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the
    program.
    C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
    D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

    26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the
    effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
    a) Desk checking
    b) Debugging a program
    c) A mutation error
    d) Performance testing
    e) Introducing mutations